[bored]

[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
Say a player has a VPIP of 40% and a PFR of 20% and they limp in front of you. What sort of holdings do you expect them to have? Well, we know the player is willing to play with 40% of his hands; our sample range for this looked something like "any pair, any ace, any king, any two broadway, any suited connectors 32s+." But we can already refine this range some more: we know that with 20% of those hands, villain would have raised, and here he didn't.

[/ QUOTE ]

Since no one mentioned this earlier. Isn't this wrong. Doesn't he mean he raises 20% OF ALL HANDS, and not 20% of just the hands he plays?

Just want make sure. It doesn't change the point he's making but I need to know if I am mistaken.

[/ QUOTE ]

You're correct, but it was only bad wording. If you read the very next section it says:

[ QUOTE ]

If we assume that villain raises with his top 20%, our sample range for that looks something like "any pair, any two broadway, any suited ace." So take THOSE hands out of his current range....


[/ QUOTE ]

In other words, what I meant was "he's playing 40% of his hands, he's raising 20% of his hands, and he limped here. That means he probably has a hand in the top 40% but NOT the top 20%." I go on to explain roughly what that range looks like.

[/ QUOTE ]

Pokey, I've always wondered if you actually read hands like this.

I haven't seen anyone who knows what 28% of hands looks like off the top of their head or knows what a 19/10 might be limping in with by using the difference between the numbers.