Re: An Unbelievably Long Guide to Hand-Reading.
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Say a player has a VPIP of 40% and a PFR of 20% and they limp in front of you. What sort of holdings do you expect them to have? Well, we know the player is willing to play with 40% of his hands; our sample range for this looked something like "any pair, any ace, any king, any two broadway, any suited connectors 32s+." But we can already refine this range some more: we know that with 20% of those hands, villain would have raised, and here he didn't.
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Since no one mentioned this earlier. Isn't this wrong. Doesn't he mean he raises 20% OF ALL HANDS, and not 20% of just the hands he plays?
Just want make sure. It doesn't change the point he's making but I need to know if I am mistaken.
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