PokerStars No-Limit Hold'em, $0.25 BB (6 handed)
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UTG :#A500AF(Villain 1)/ ($17.20)
MP ($34.15)
CO ($22.30)
Hero ($48.05)
SB :#A500AF(Villain 2)/ ($24.75)
BB ($15.55)
Preflop: Hero is Button with A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img], 8[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]. CO posts a blind of $0.35.
UTG :#A500AF(Villain 1)/ calls $0.25, <font color="#666666">
1 fold</font>, CO (poster) checks, Hero calls $0.25, SB :#A500AF(Villain 2)/ completes, BB checks.
Flop: ($1.35) 4[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img], 8[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img], 3[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(5 players)</font>
Villain 2 checks, <font color="#CC3333">BB bets $1</font>, Villain 1 calls $1, CO folds, <font color="#CC3333">Hero raises to $4</font>, Villain 2 folds, BB folds, <font color="#CC3333">Villain 1 raises to $16.95</font>
Villain 1 is solid, villain 2 is too loose-passive. Those are just stat-reads though, nothing specific about their play.
So, once they flat call I figure them both for a draw (since a solid player would raise, right?) Then he shoves. My first thought here is that he tried to limp-reraise with AA/KK, my second thought is that he might be the kind who open-limps with low PP's in early position and hit his set, and was smooth-calling the flop to induce more betting, but figures he should take his shot now after my raise.
Regardless I have to be beat here, right?