[EPiPeN11]

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why do you flat call reraises from utg vs utg+1 with 22 and 100bb?

(srs question)

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It's situational. Generally I do it because if I raise UTG and someone raises UTG+1 I assign them a range of AK QQ KK AA more often than not no matter what they're stats unless they're mega spewtard. Therefore, I think I have more than the 8:1 to hit a set for stacks because I think I get paid off here almost every time by a regular and most of the time by a tightfish. If you feel this is flawed I'm open to discussion, and in fact hoping for discussion [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img].


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lol im such an ass, it was someone else that stacked me with 22 after calling my potsize reraise oop utg at stars 3/6.

Either way, its a massively leaky play. When you call the reraise with dueces getting 10:1 on villains stack or whatever, and flop a set, you are still only 80% to win, its not even a sure stacking. You also don't always stack them, since ppl most ppl 3bet ak. When it comes down to it, basically you can't profitably continue in that spot preflop vs a range of AK QQ+ unless you are a total god of poker, and probably not even in that case.

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Agreed, nothing pisses me off more when people call for set value when it is -ev to do so and then hit like bozos, and this isn't even including the fact that you aren't getting the 3betor's stack 100 percent of the time.