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Old 11-03-2007, 10:36 AM
pvn pvn is offline
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Join Date: Jan 2004
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Default Re: Initiated vs. Reactive Violence

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Edit - To clarify: if you assume the government has a "right" to act in self-interest, I think all types qualify as reactive.

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1) Governments have no rights.

2) Governments have no self-interest.

3) having the "right to act in self interest" is incredibly vague and open-ended.
If I have such a right, that means I have a RIGHT to do whatever I want. Anything goes!

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If the government does not have the right to act in self-interest for: collection of debts, enforcement of a majority-affirmed code of ethics; then why does any free market agent have the right to self-interest?

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Collection of debts? I can't just say "you owe me $100" and then have a right to collect that.

Regardless, why would my right to X be depenedent upon a government right to the same X? There's no reason one should be dependent on the other.
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