[PLOlover]

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Can you document when the last time was that the common man wasn't entitled to a jury trial in England when he was accused of a crime?

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I guess I misread your last post a bit. what I meant was that until 1950 or so a nobleman got preferential treatment, his own court system. if you can't see how this is is unamerican (all men are created equal, eg, no people better than others by accident of birth of nobility) , then I don't know what to tell you. by saying it is a jury of his peers then you are saying that noblemen are intrinsically better than the common man, which is unamerican.

It's like saying if you're super rich you get a jury of your immediate family, otherwise you get strangers. fair?