[baltostar]

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No its not, you're process is really terrible and makes no sense.

1800 is absolutely irrelevant to the matter of implied odds, 1200 is your number.

You arent even taking into account the current pot odds, which lessens the implied odds you need.

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Trust me. I know my game theory. The "event" is the flop, not each time the action comes to you.

As I said earlier: imagine you're sandwiched between two big stack opponents who min re-raise each other until one is allin. If at each decision point you calculate implied odds to play for set value based on your cost-to-call, you might easily make every successive call, and would become allin yourself, at which point you would have ~2:1 going into the flop -- hardly sufficient odds to play for set value.

Pre-flop pot odds are not directly relevant to calculating maximum implied odds.

Pre-flop pot odds are relevant to calculating the odds required to play for set value because committed chips reduce the multiplier used to discount the likelihood of stacking if you hit.

In this case, the max implied odds are hero's max payoff achievable post-flop (in this case: hero's stack + dead money in blinds) against hero's total pre-flop outlay = (16725 + 300)/1800 ~= 9.5 : 1