[highlife]

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I understand that strictly speaking, concluding the premise is a logical fallacy. However, if intelligence is not genetically based, why can't I have a conversation with my cat?

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You can't have a conversation with a Zulu tribesman either. What does this prove?

Also, I never said intelligence was not genetically based. Re-read my original statement.

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The reason people are arguing with you is because you said that Watson talks about intelligence having a genetic basis without ever proving it. The point we are trying to make to you is that it is so self-evidently true that intelligence has some genetic basis that there is no reason for Watson to waste time proving it. If his whole argument depended on intelligence being 100% inheritable then yes, that would have been a grave oversight. But thats not what happened.

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Ughh. Google "Glenwood State School", "Milwaukee Project", "Joseph Graves" etc etc etc etc etc.

You people defending Watson, you seem to be treading the path to Eugenics/Dysgenics. That "science" has been garbage for 70+ years.

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I'm honestly not sure if you posted this in the wrong thread.

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If intelligence is not totally or nearly 100% genetically inherited, Watson's argument falls flat on its face. I don't believe we have even close to enough proof of that, all "conversations with cats" aside. This was my point.

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If intelligence is 0.00001% genetically based Watsons argument is entirely valid. Well, not the part about it sucking to have black employees, that part was ridiculous, but the part about there being racial differences in intelligence.

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So tell me this, how does the "race" gene(s) correlate to the "intelligence" gene(s)?

Given the following:
One race has a higher average IQ than another race.
Race is genetically determined.
Intelligence is genetically determined (in part).

Don't those three facts have to be put together before there is any scientific basis for Watson's conclusion?