[TNixon]

Sorry for the broken multi-posts, but since you seem to be around, I'm going to go ahead and post as I digest.

[ QUOTE ]

10bb case.
std dev=21.9bb/hand

100bb case
std dev=219bb/hand


[/ QUOTE ]
Without actually looking at the math or anything else, these results indicate that, given the setup (equal bankrolls and equal buyins, just at different blind levels), the variance in these two cases is exactly the same in real $, as well as percentage of bankrolls. 219bb when bb = $1 is exactly the same as 21.9bb when bb = $10, $219.

And this is exactly the point that I feel like you've been missing all along, and why I've been so frustrated about this particular issue.