i 3-bet with 2nd nut. villain calls. i\'m good, rite?
live $4/8. villain is a loose station and just saw him call on river for one bet with a full house, where the only hand that could beat him was 4-of-a-kind.
i call with K [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] 6 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] on button. 5 to the flop.
Flop: 6 [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] 10 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] J [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]
Villain bets out from BB, one caller, i raise, both call. 3 to the turn.
Turn: 5 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]
They check to me, i bet, they both call.
River: Q [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]
They check to me, i bet, villain in BB craises, 1 fold, i reraise, villain CALLS with A [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] 9 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]
so, ya, he saved me money by not 4-betting, but should i have 3-bet in the first place? given the betting pattern, i figured a good % of the time, he might have hit his straight on the river and not put me on the flush. but again, i had seen him flat call with a full house a couple hands ago, should i not have 3-bet this?
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