[marchron]

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So in the first example I should not have called down, certainly not down the river. But should I have bet the flop with an Ace showing, or should I have checked that flop? The raise from villain is pretty strong here and gives away that he has a good hand. But what if I had checked and villain had made a bet on the flop?

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I wish I could give you good advice, but you're just in one of the crappiest situations possible, where you're behind to almost everything and OOP to boot. There's really no good solution here.

You're laying yourself 9½-1 to bet the flop, so he doesn't have to fold KK/QQ that often for the bet to be a winning play. But you can't call down here, not even a single bet, because you beat nothing.