[Luxoris]

"The depecriating currency is surely a sign of inflation because the demand for the currency is not at par with what the fed dictates themselves as creditworth for."

No, it is only a sign of the demand for the currency relative to other currencies for trade. That may be indirectly inflationary to the extent that it makes foreign goods more expensive, but it also improves the trade balance because it makes our goods cheaper for other countries to buy.

Any links to support that the "old" method actually produces 10%?