[DavidC]

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I woulda lost more I think, the same people who ck AA here ck AK, i probably would have cr'd the turn and called down I suppose or called to cr the river vs KK QQ.

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If I were going to look at this mathematically, where would I do my baysean probabilities, on the flop or the turn?

i.e. Let's say that I said that he would play AK/AQ like this like 60% of the time if he was the type of player to play AA in this manner.

Therefore flop:

AK/AQ = 24 hands, 60% = 14.4 hands.
AA = 3 hands.

4.8:1 he has AK/AQ over AA.

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Turn:

AK/AQ = 16 hands = 9.6 hands
AA = 1 hand.

9.6:1 in favour of AK/AQ.

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Which is it?

I think that we're looking at the turn (9.6:1 in favour of the big ace) rather than the flop, even though most of our "eureka info" came on the flop.

I'm tired, so... I'm having a tough time with this. [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img] Anyways, which of these math formulas is right, given my assumption? 9.6:1?

--Dave.

edit: last time someone did this to me I had 66 on J642 and I bet/called the turn instead of c/c'ed it (vs jj).

edit: fwiw I see this line it seems much more often out of AA than AK, just because AK has so many more hands that you will pay off with than AA.