Villain is the same guy who played
this hand so colossally. He's normally passive, but he may have a personal tilt-vendetta against me for "sucking out" on him.
Given that, is it right to cap preflop versus his LRR? And what's my play on this worthless flop?
Ultimate Bet 3/6 Hold'em (10 handed)
Hand History Converter Tool from
FlopTurnRiver.com (Format: 2+2 Forums)
Preflop: marchron is BB with A[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], K[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img].
<font color="#666666">
1 fold</font>, UTG+2 calls, <font color="#666666">
6 folds</font>, <font color="#CC3333">marchron raises</font>, <font color="#CC3333">UTG+2 3-bets</font>, <font color="#CC3333">marchron caps</font>, UTG+2 calls.
Flop: (8.33 SB) 8[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img], 7[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img], T[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(3 players)</font>
marchron . . .