[kerr]

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Does your house have a half-the-bet-is-a-raise rule? Even if it did, I think the relevant principle is that any bet which can be interpreted as both a raise and a call should be interpreted as a call.

Another case: The game is $4-8, on the turn. Someone bets $8. The next player puts in three $5 chips. Is this a raise? In most cardrooms I play in, this would indeed be a raise, because the player has put in at least half the bet without comment.

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Whether it's Limit or No Limit, I say it's a raise to $16.

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We do have a half-bet rule. We call it the "50% rule". The important thing to note here is that this will always be overridden by the single oversized chip rule.

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In most cardrooms, the half-bet rule applies only to limit poker, not no-limit poker. While some cardrooms may use the half-bet rule for no-limit, most do not.

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Seeing as I regularly play in "Brettski's House", I think I know how it works there. Brett was indeed talking about No Limit and the 50% rule, not to be confused with the Half-Bet Rule for Limit. So let me expand on OP's scenario:

1/2 NL game:
P1 raises to $6
P2 throws out two red ($5) chips without saying anything. This is a call of $6.
P3 then throws out a 5 and four 1s. This is a raise to $10.

The minimum raise is to $10. If P3 bet $7, according to the 50% rule, he must take $1 back, and his bet is actually a call of $6. If P3 bet $8 or $9, his raise is >=50% of a min-raise, and the ruling is he must complete the min-raise to $10.

Correct Brett? However, while I accept this to be the rule, I am not sure that this is standard across most cardrooms. Robert's Rule 14-11 states: If a player tries to bet or raise less than the legal minimum and has more chips, the wager must be increased to the proper size. The wager is brought up to the sufficient amount only, no greater size. Does this not imply that if P3 put in a 5 and two 1s that this should be deemed a raise to $10, at odds with Brettski's 50% rule?