[Captain R]

Villain is a winning player, probably a 2+2er. A little overagressive at times with the worst hand, but overall plays fairly well.

Villain opens UTG, folded around to me in BB. I look down at K[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]K[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] and 3-bet. UTG thinks a little while like he's considering a 4-bet, but then decides to just call. I have a pretty tight, solid image, so I definitely have a good hand. He respects this and knows I'm not getting out of line.

Flop is Q[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img]9[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]5[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]. I bet, UTG thinks for a second and then calls.

Turn is 2[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]. I check. I put UTG on either A-high or some kind of pair. AK might call the turn hoping to chop, but a smaller Ace will probably fold. Any other big cards will fold. A pair will almost always bet here and I will therefore check-raise.

So I'm basically giving UTG a free-roll to try to hit his 3-outer and also to induce an A-high or something like AJ with a J on the river to call down on the river. There's 4 BB's in the pot. I'm giving a freeroll on a 4 BB pot to try to win 1 more BB.

I check and UTG thinks for a second trying to figure out why I checked and then checks it back.

River is a blank, I bet, UTG calls with AK.

Is this maximizing KK (by inducing AK to call down unimproved) or just being maximally retarded (which I expect everyone to tell me)? UTG was probably at least 50% willing to call down lightly with A-high on the river (say AJ) based on my turn check.