[NoChance]

I'm just curious why you have a LP-P and a sLP-P (and others). I understand the difference in that the sLP-P sees less flops but what are some examples of how this may sway a decision at the table.

Furthermore, has anyone taken the time to categorize what each VP$IP % means or what each PFR % means? What percentage would you put the following players? Would the following be somewhat accurate?

For VP$IP:
Sklansky hands: 18% ???
SSH hands: 20% ???
Any Ace: 30% ???
Any Ace, Any King: 40% ???
Any suited: 50+% ???
Almost any two cards: 70+% ???

For PFR:
1%: AA KK AK AKs ???
3%: AA KK QQ JJ AKs AK ???
5%: AA KK QQ JJ AKs AQs AJs AK AQ ???

For Aggression:
0.35: rarely ever bets or raises ???
0.50: bets top pair only/raises only the nuts ???
1.0: bets top pair, open end straight draws, and flush draws ???
1.5: May raise second pair sometimes to protect hand ???
2.0: ???

You get the picture. Has anyone tried to figure out what each percentage means? The figures I put together above were just for the sake of setting up an example and may or may not be accurate.