[MychCumstien]

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That means AK[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img], AK[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], AK[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img], and NOTHING ELSE AT ALL.

So no, you're wrong. Villain should be bluffing here fairly often, but playing an overpair like this is super super super standard if Hero is prone to floating (clearly the case) and especially so if he will felt lightly (also clearly the case).

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I'm having a hard time understanding why you are limiting the villain's range so much? Why can't the villain have AT,KT,QT,JT? or 66,77,88,99? I see everyone posting TT-AA, 33, or air. In a 4 handed game, I have to believe the LAG villain is capable of making these plays with a mid PP, as well as TP. No, it may not be "standard", but is it standard to bet every street and go to the felt on the river with "air"? I'm having a very hard time believing that the villain can't have TP or better, or a mid PP here as well as ace high (air).

I do agree that he shouldn't have the flush draw here, as it would have been played very badly.

I'm just confused with the line of thinking here that suggests the villain's standard line here is a total bluff [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img] I would love it if someone could enlighten me,(hey, I'm learning) because from where I'm sitting, I could easily see the villain holding QT here.