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Rottersod... I was 100% with you in my line of thinking as this all unfolded. I was obviously biased in my thinking (and a little psd off) but does his call after the 8 hit make a difference? I guess I would like to assume they did it correctly, and according to L.L. it sounds like they did, but do you have a different opinion? The hand in question wasn't really a big deal, but I could see it happening in my own home game someday, and I'd like to know exactly what to do. Thanks all.

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If that hand had played out like it did in my home game I would have spoken up and asked that it be ruled that the 8 plays. The guys I play with probably would have agreed and we would have gone on and had an enjoyable evening. My reasoning for doing it this way is that the villain clearly thought he was ahead when he called your all in so you shouldn't be penalized for the dealers mistake. The fact that the villain did make the call before it was straightened out means that the 8 should have played.

In fact, the more I think about it the more I realize that you could have made a good case in a casino that the 8 should have played since the villain made the call after seeing the card and your action was already finished for the rest of the hand. I'm going to ask a couple of local floors in LA next weekend.

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I agree with rottersod on this one. The 8 should have stayed, because he made a decision based on it. Not sure how an actual casino would rule this though.