[Alexpoker]

I'm also an engineer.
Let's make a little programm under excel.
In colums A : = ENT( AlEA()*2) that give number 0 or 1 (50% / 50%)
Then you searsh the number ot times where there are five times in a row 1. Then you calculate the % that there is 0 after.
Answer : 51%.

Moreover, theory of probability proves that even if you have 100 loss coin flip in a row, the next one is 50/50.

Why ?? If the average is 50/50 and if you have 100 loss coin flip in a row,then you have to be lucky after to get closer the average ??
=> be lucky : NO !!!!!
=> get closer to the average : YES !!!
but not in being lucky 10 times in a row but in the LONG RUN.
If you play 10 coin flips and you lose 9 of them =>
90% of loss
theory => 50% of loss
Then you play 10000 coin flip and you loose half (50000). (you have not be lucky, not unlucky).
Then you loose 50000+9 hands and the number of hands you play is 100000+10
So you lose 50009/100010 = 50,00399 % !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Sorry for my english which is not very good. i hope some of you have understand.

Alex. Beginner poker player