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  #1  
Old 09-05-2007, 08:33 AM
Mundy Mundy is offline
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Default Re: Set over set

Set over set is a cooler in this situation.
Villain will have all sorts of two pair hands.
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  #2  
Old 09-05-2007, 09:12 AM
AceOfClubs AceOfClubs is offline
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Default Re: Set over set

[ QUOTE ]
Set over set is a cooler in this situation.
Villain will have all sorts of two pair hands.

[/ QUOTE ]
He had set.
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  #3  
Old 09-05-2007, 09:14 AM
Mike Kelley Mike Kelley is offline
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Default Re: Set over set

It's still an easy all in. Do you fold aces cuz they get beat one time?
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  #4  
Old 09-05-2007, 09:29 AM
AlexB182 AlexB182 is offline
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Default Re: Set over set

You have to try to see those things independent from their results. Of course you'll lose in set over set situations every now and then but in general and in the long term, playing for stacks in these situations is +EV.
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  #5  
Old 09-05-2007, 09:36 AM
Mike Kelley Mike Kelley is offline
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Default Re: Set over set

our odds of hitting a set

1/7.5 our neighbors odds of hitting a set 1/7.5. So, my estimate is that set over set should occur about 1 in 56.25 times you get one? I know the math could be taken to a much higher level, but is this completely wrong from a statistics stand point? I need to ask this in the probabilities section and see what those booger eaters say.
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  #6  
Old 09-05-2007, 09:48 AM
justscott justscott is offline
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Default Re: Set over set

Google is your friend.

http://www.math.sfu.ca/~alspach/mag86/
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  #7  
Old 09-05-2007, 10:04 AM
Mike Kelley Mike Kelley is offline
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Default Re: Set over set

[ QUOTE ]
Google is your friend.

http://www.math.sfu.ca/~alspach/mag86/

[/ QUOTE ]

Thanks for the link. I'll look over that tonight. From scanning it's pretty freaking rare, even more so than I stated.
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  #8  
Old 09-05-2007, 09:51 AM
Sounded Simple Sounded Simple is offline
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Default Re: Set over set

Isnt it something like

For Middle Set:
"1/17 (their odds of PP)" x "1/49 (They can hit 1 of 49 cards on the flop)" x "No. Of opponents"
Or - 1/833

For Bottom Set:
"1/17 (their odds of PP)" x "2/49 (They can hit 2 of 49 cards on the flop)" x "No. Of opponents"
Or - 1/416.5

Can anyone confirm?
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  #9  
Old 09-05-2007, 10:03 AM
Sounded Simple Sounded Simple is offline
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Default Re: Set over set

Thinking about it the above wrong unless you assume that your opponent has seen the flop with a random hand. You need to use what % of his Preflop Range are PP.

Therefore it should be -

For Middle Set:
"No. of times they have a Higher PP/All other hands in their range" x "1/49 (They can hit 1 of 49 cards on the flop)"

For Bottom Set:
"No. of times they have a Higher PP/All other hands in their range" x "2/49 (They can hit 2 of 49 cards on the flop)"



Bottom line - not often enough to worry about unless you have an insane read.
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  #10  
Old 09-05-2007, 04:53 PM
Das Budrick Das Budrick is offline
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Default Re: Set over set

[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
Set over set is a cooler in this situation.
Villain will have all sorts of two pair hands.

[/ QUOTE ]
He had set.

[/ QUOTE ]

haha
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