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Say the spread is X and I bet the moneyline, is there a formula they use to set the payouts? [/ QUOTE ] Basically, yes. The "formula" depends on the sport. Given enough historical data it's pretty easy to calculate for yourself. [ QUOTE ] Or if I adjust the spread by Y, how does that affect the payouts? [/ QUOTE ] Do you mean, do books automatically adjust the ML as they adjust the spread and vice versa? The answer is that they often do, but not always. [ QUOTE ] Do the books often fudge these numbers based on action? (they seem to not be totally concistent all the time). [/ QUOTE ] Sometimes they do. A good example is last year's Superbowl. The ML and spread numbers were significantly out-of-whack compared to each other. If you go back far enough, you might find a thread or two on this forum discussing this specific issue. To answer your unasked question, sometimes one or the other is a better value, and if you know how these numbers ought to relate, you can often determine which of the two is the better bet. |
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