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OK, I am figuring out the probability that my opponent who holds a random hand has a pair of kings or queens on this board:
Preflop: Hero is CO with T[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], T[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]. <font color="#666666">5 folds</font>, <font color="#CC3333">Hero raises to t150</font>, Button calls t150, <font color="#666666">2 folds</font>. Flop: (t375) 6[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], 2[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img], K[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font> <font color="#CC3333">Hero bets t150</font>, Button calls t150. Turn: (t675) Q[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font> What I do is I take the 3 remaining queens and kings (6 cards) and then multiply them by all the remaining unseen cards (52 - 7 = 45) to find out how many combinations there are that would make one pair of queens or kings. 6*45 = 270 combos of at least 1pair of Q's or K's. For the sake of this example let's not complicate the math by worrying about the probability our opponent has a set or small 2pair. Ok so after the turn is dealt we have seen 6 out of 52 cards. Our opponent has a random hand, so he is holding any one of 1,035 combos (46*45/2). The probability of our opponent having at least 1 Q or K is roughly %26. AMIRITE? |
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