Better Restated Abortion Question

[luckyme]

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So if I'm following this correctly:

-The fetus became the woman's exclusive property the moment it was conceived inside her body.
-The woman continues to have exclusive ownership of the fetus after it is removed (without being terminated).
-Therefore, the woman has the exclusive right to terminate the fetus (now outside her body) as long as it does not become human (since the moment the fetus becomes "human," it owns itself).

OK thus far?

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So we don't get lost in terminology, the fetus is a human fetus so it doesn't need to 'become' human. The question, as chez puts it, is 'the status' an entity has.
Let's test that against our approach with other entities. Does a normal newborn own itself .. in the same way a 25 year old teacher does. Does it actually have a different status, one in which the parent(s) would seem to have some aspect of ownership also. Does a senile old man own himself?

Those simple cases seem to indicate this ownership thing is not a yea-nay. Perhaps if there were a phased in way of looking at?

luckyme