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#11
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Why wouldn't it have been written "the right of the states to keep and bear arms"...instead of "the right of the people to keep and bear arms"? I think the argument to which you are referring indeed claims that the right is contingent uponm militias, but does not further claim that those militias must be under the control of the state government. As above, if they wanted it to refer to the right of "states", they would have used that word instead of using the word "people". edited: It seems to me that if the text is referencing the right to bear arms solely for the purposes of a militia, it is still referring to the right of the people to keep and bear arms for such purpose: not the right of states to so keep and bear. [/ QUOTE ] John - It's honestly not an argument I am versed with, it was mentioned in passing in my Con Law class, where the 2nd Amendment got very little face time. I was just pointing out that it was out there. My reading of the amendment is that people should be able to bear arms so that they can assemble into a well regulated militia should the need arise. |
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