sklansky bux math

[tatemodern]

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So, if you get all in pre-flop with A-A versus J-J for $10k and you lose, you lost $10k in real dollars; however you won about $6k in Sklansky Dollars because you should win that hand 80% of the time.

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i don't understand the math used to get 6k. if you'll win 80% of the time, why don't you get 80% of the pot in sklansky bux? the pot is 20k, so shouldn't you get 16k?