I thought this was fairly straightforward

[KingNeo]

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I think everyone is making this analysis way too complicated. It all boils down to whether he thinks villain has to have AA a majority of the time preflop to make that last raise.

If answer is yes then stacks aren't deep enough to call for set value so he should have folded.

If the answer is no, but still with some possibility he is indeed up against AA, then the principle of playing in such a way as not to win the least when ahead and lose the most when behind applies. Which means he should just call preflop and then call any flop push except an A flop, and maybe even then, or push when checked to. This means when the answer is no to the original consideration, that he isn't just running off QQ/JJ/AK and getting stacked by AA, but is still committed nonetheless to getting the rest of it in on a non-A flop.

So as played he should have called the flop push or just folded pre.


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While I realize that Sam and MDMA both have man crushes on each other that does not mean either one of you are even close to being correct. Perhaps you guys do not realize that the hands you post are from 5/10 and 10/20 capped games. I.E. they are extremely straighforward for the most part.

Sam I think you are a quality poster but your follow up responses in this thread seem like a cop out to justify looking very silly in this hand.

I quoted Bluffthis's post because this is what I previously posted and it needs to be repeated.

Calling preflop and folding to a push is VERY VERY VERY poor. Hopefully I made myself clear.