![]() |
|
#1
|
|||
|
|||
|
Reads of villain is a loose passive opponent (54/2/0.4) this is a very, very limited samplesize ~100 hands. (these numbers are (vp$ip/preflop-raise/aggr. factor) right?)
I am fairly new in the game and pick up A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] K [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] in the CO We both got full stacks in 50$NL fold to villain who limps, mp limp. i raise to 2.5$, blinds fold, villain calls, 2:nd limper folds. 2 players to the flop. pot ~6.25$ I dont got the hand converted, so forgive me, but i hope the play from here on is comprehendible. > Dealing the Flop(3[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] 5[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] A[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img]) > villain checked i usually bet out no matter i hit or miss, but i decided this was a safe flop and checked behind. (comments?) > Hero checked > Dealing the turn(9[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]) pot ~6.25$ > villain bet for $3 > Hero raised for $10 > Villain raised for $42 > Hero ? This is my thinking: Considering he is kind of passive in this session, his raise clearly stands out of the ordinary. Limp - call? did he flop a set? Do i want to commit my entire stack with just TPTK? All comments are welcome - Thank you. |
|
|