Re: What are the odds of hitting 2 pair on the flop?
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Suppose you hold 85.
To flop precisely two pair you need to flop one of the other three 8's, one of the other three 5's, and one of the other forty four cards which are neither 8 nor 5.
All together there are 50 cards not yet seen.
So the probability you're looking for is (3 x 3 x 44)/(50C3)
= 396/19600
= 0.020204
which is roughly 49-1 against.
Someone please tell me if I've got that wrong.
When I say precisely two pair, I'm excluding the possibility of flopping better than two pair (trips, boat, quads).
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How about a flush draw when holding 2 suited? I can't seem to get 10.9% that I see all over the web.
Edit - 11 * 10 * 39 = 4290/19600 = .2188
If you divide that by 2 you get 10.9% but why are we dividing by two?
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