Re: A Question I got via PM
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This is an interesting argument, if a person is not able to determine for themselves what is fair, how can anybody at any time determine what is fair for other people? If people are unable to determine what is fair then essentially there can be no way to set standards or definitions of fairness.
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This is somewhat correct. A person can determine for itself what is fair or not but any general definition of fairness, while it can be created, doesn't have to be accepted by everyone else or anyone else. It's a strong value judgement and not objective.
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Exactly. Which is why some third party (i.e. government) cannot possibly set a "fair" price by some arbitrary fiat.
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