[gulon]

The one hand that stood out was the loose call preflop with 76o (obviously):

Read: Villain had been 3-betting preflop a lot.
t10/t20
HERO 1370
VILLAIN 1630

Preflop: Hero is SB with 7[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] 6[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]
Hero raises to 60. Villain reraises to 160. Hero calls!

Flop: (320) 4[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] 5[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] 7[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]
Villain all-in 1470. Hero calls.



So I would probably also call the push on the flop with TP against this kind of villain but I am curious about the preflop call. I'm not a poker-math expert so please check me here...

If Hero folds to the 3-bet he is left with 1310 chips (43.67% equity)

If Hero calls the 3-bet and wins the flop he has 1530 chips unless villain puts in more chips. If Hero calls the 3-bet but then folds on the flop he has 1210 chips left. Obviously there could be a lot more options but I chose some simple cases of postflop action.

If Hero wins postflop x% of the time and loses (1-x)% then to have the same equity as folding (1310 chips) we calculate:

x(1530) + (1-x)(1210) = 1310
x = 0.31

So it seems we must win more than 1 in 3 times postflop to achieve a better equity than folding preflop. Was this your thinking preflop? Is my math even right LOL? It just seems like with low unsuited connectors we are marginal in this situation and I would have a tough time making that preflop call.