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Old 08-16-2007, 12:58 AM
All-In Flynn All-In Flynn is offline
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Join Date: Mar 2007
Location: Dublin, Ireland
Posts: 42
Default Re: How can gayness have a genetic basis?

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In polygyny it is plausible that women could be lesbian and not be any less reproductively successful.

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Again, don't see how this could be so, unless we insist either that there is absolutely no such thing as 'entirely gay' or at least that women tend to be more 'moderately' gay. Yes, I'm just going to go ahead and assume that gayness tends to reduce the desire, not necessarily to procreate (what urge are gays following when they get their gay sex on? Surely the same as the rest of us.), but to have sex with members of the opposite gender - which leads to procreation.

Your account of gays finding members of the opposite sex attractive in youth is interesting... though there are so many accounts (even of people that I know) of a child being 'unmistakeably gay' (not my phrase) from very early childhood. Seems to fuel the 'spectrum' theory.

I'm tired. Hope this will still be going tomorrow, it's an interesting discussion.

[Edit: the second half of my previous post was aimed at m_the0ry].
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