[chezlaw]

[ QUOTE ]
So if I'm following this correctly:

-The fetus became the woman's exclusive property the moment it was conceived inside her body.
-The woman continues to have exclusive ownership of the fetus after it is removed (without being terminated).
-Therefore, the woman has the exclusive right to terminate the fetus (now outside her body) as long as it does not become human (since the moment the fetus becomes "human," it owns itself).

OK thus far?


[/ QUOTE ]
That's more or less what they're saying. Its easy to disagree with but its not illogical.

chez