Re: WSOP PLO8 hand
"There was no way I was folding this hand. The question preflop is call or push. I reasoned that villain would likely autopush anyway on the flop and with position I wanted the latitude to make a decision. And I thought that my fold equity was nil -- he was pot committed IMO."
I agree about making decisions and the like in this game, but in my post how many flops are going to come out where it's not going to be mathematically correct not to call him when he goes all-in...Plus what if the flop comes KKJ and he doesn't bluff at the pot? Then you just lost 8500 chips by not pushing preflop...
"Villain did have A2 spades, and he did catch a low spade. It sucked, and it was high variance, and my EV=.382, but I don't see any other way than to call. Can anyone use
numbers to criticize this logic?"
I can't imagine there can be any calcs that don't mathematically justify a call here...Once you call the flop unless it comes down all spades or 345 then you are correct in calling...
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