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Also, a related question: when talking about condoms you often hear about failure rates; i've heard anywhere between 70% and 99%. Is a condom said to have "failed" only when the girl gets pregnant? Or are "failure rate" and "pregnancy rate" two different things? It seems to me that the latter should be true, and that even if a condom does fail, that doesn't automatically mean a pregnancy has occured. But I'm looking for confirmation.
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Good news — your second interpretation of contraceptive effectiveness rates is more like it. During a year of typical condom use, 14 out of 100 women will become pregnant. During a year of perfect condom use, that number drops to 3 out of 100 women becoming pregnant.
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