[CardSharpCook]

you can't just tack on the 4% to the 2%. "problems with their gambling" could mean:

a) my girlfriend doesn't like my job as a Pro Player
b) I'm a cook and I just blew $1000 on the Wizards-Cavs last night. That was stupid. Now I can't do anything for the next two weeks.
c) My wife is upset that I come home smelling like beer and cigars every wednesday when I come home from the weekly $20 poker night.
d) As a college student, I spent 25 hours last week playing poker - $5 SNGs, I made $78 last week. Ironically, I got a 78 on my Sociology exam.

I think all of these would qualify as "a person experiences problems with their gambling but does not fulfill the conditions for a diagnosis of the psychiatric condition called pathological gambling"





However, 2% is a pretty big portion of the population to be "pathological gamblers," and probably should count as a "societal problem." I'd love to see comparable numbers for Alcoholics, Addicts, Shopoholics, Nymphos, etc. I'd also be curious to see a Venn Diagram to see how much these categories overlap - if it is just 4% of the country who are prone to "oholicism."