Alright - first post - so go easy on me. [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]
Villain 1 (UTG+1) is 40/13/3 (100)
Villain 2 (SB) is 37/11/2 (200)
Full Tilt No-Limit Hold'em, $0.50 BB (8 handed)
Hand History Converter Tool from
FlopTurnRiver.com (Format: 2+2 Forums)
saw flop|
<font color="#C00000">saw showdown</font>
BB ($54.40)
UTG ($160.80)
<font color="#C00000">UTG+1 ($9.10)</font>
MP1 ($19.10)
<font color="#C00000">mostman ($43.25)</font>
CO ($48.80)
Button ($50)
SB ($42.75)
Preflop: mostman is MP2 with A[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], A[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img].
<font color="#666666">
1 fold</font>, <font color="#CC3333">UTG+1 raises to $1.5</font>, <font color="#666666">
1 fold</font>, <font color="#CC3333">mostman raises to $3</font>, <font color="#666666">
2 folds</font>, SB calls $2.75, <font color="#666666">
1 fold</font>, <font color="#CC3333">UTG+1 raises to $10.6 (All-In)</font>, <font color="#CC3333">mostman raises to $46.25 (All-In)</font>, SB folds.
Flop: ...
Final Pot: $60.35
Was this the correct move to shove once villain 2 got all his chips in? Or should I have just flat called allowing villain 2 to call? My thinking was that all of villain 1's chips were enough for me - so why bother running against both of them. Proper?
-Mike