[illegit]

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If an ace bets it is for value. KK is not in his range more than 5% of the time. If you can't see why... I don't really know what to say. Just called 2 pf raises, then calls down on ace high board and bets the river? Hm... no.

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i agree with KK not being in his range due to preflop action, but i do not see a weak ace betting for value here, especially considering preflop action. Why would a worse ace than yours feel confident enough that he can bet this board on the river for value, when he should be confident enough that he can get to showdown very cheaply WA/WB? A weak ace here is a bluff bet IMO.

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Everything is WA/WB on the river.

If an ace bets here it is never as a bluff. He wouldn't expect me to fold a better hand, and thinks he could get pair by worse hands.

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Most players in these fields simply don't think in these terms. Clearly the point of betting in poker is to get opponents to call you when they have worse hands and fold when they have better hands.

However, most people simply DO NOT understand this concept as simple as it is. Any thinking person would say 'why would I bet AJ here when i can check-call and induce a bluff which would make me more $ in the long run?' Most people think 'i have a pair i bet. Why? Cause there's a button that says bet.... and I have a pair of aces'. Is it for value? is it a bluff? Honestly, they have no clue.

If we assume, or know, the opponent understands the object of poker then folding is OK. Though if he KNOWS we know that he knows, and is capable of calling with air on the flop just to represent a hand bbetter than AK then you're back to probably having to call here again.