Re: No, I am saying the argument fails because it confuses people
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And as I have posted earlier, the better question to ask is, does chance determine the result over 50% of the time?
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I don't quite get what you are saying here. It seems obvious that the answer to this question is a resounding YES. How could it be otherwise?
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I will let you in on a little secret - I phrased the question this way because a) it fits the legal standard and b) because I hope everyone (even the non-poker playing general public) would see that the answer is indeed a resounding yes.
If everyone agrees (or at least the judges and juries, as the case may be) then poker is legally not gambling in about 30-35 states.
Skallagrim
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