[Pokey]

PotatoStew said:

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Why does it matter how PFR relates to VPIP? In either case, the player is raising 10% of his hands. Why is a loose player who raises 10% of his hands considered less aggressive than a tight player who raises 10% of his hands?


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In a sense, you're absolutely right: given that a player has raised preflop, it doesn't matter too much whether he's a 60/10 or a 15/10 (other than a 60/10 is probably an inferior player, and therefore more likely to make bigger postflop mistakes). However, the difference between a passive and an aggressive player is huge when the player is still to act. Another big difference comes when you get REraised -- a 60/10 probably three-bets less often than a 15/10, because a 60/10's natural inclination would be to smooth-call. A 15/10 has an aggressive mindset and behaves accordingly; a 60/10 has a passive mindset. The differences are subtle, but important.

Esmerelda said:

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I get somewhat different percentages for the monotone flop. If you don't have any of the suit villain has a made flush (10/47)(9/46) = 0.042 or 4.2% of the time and he no cards of the suit(37/47)(36/46) = 0.616 or 61.6% of the time. He has a flush draw the remaining 34.2% of the time.


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You're absolutely right, and I absolutely screwed that one up. Thanks -- that was a good catch.