[Goldmund]

Your calculation is off I think Jay, let me summarize: Let's agree the all-in preflop is ev-neutral if villain has overcards, so we don't have to bother with that. That leads to the conclusion that whether we take it or not is simply a matter of taste.

Putting it real simple whether to stop-and-go or not comes down to this, disregarding set and re-suck scenarios: 1/3 of the time you're gonna lose 18 big blinds in the stop-and-go betting sequence and 2/3 of the time you're gonna win the 3.6 big blinds Villain put in preflop. Thats the net result of the stop-and-go. I dont see any doubt that the all-in is preferable preflop if Villain will call his whole stack with two overcards. One of us is missing something! I think it's you :-) Goldmund



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I worked it out and believe now that pushing is better but if villian had around 800 chips then stop and go would be the best choice . .

If you push all in and he calls , you will be at best a coin flip . Lets say you have a 50 % chance of winning the flip .

Ev= 900*0.5-850*0.5= 25 . That is , you win half of your bb back .

Now if you use the stop and go play watch what happens to your Ev .

You call an additional 130 which means there is 360 in the pot and villian has 720 chips remaining .

Ev(s and g | he folds ) = 360*(2/3)=240 Since if he doesn't hit and he has two overcards , he doesn't have the correct odds to continue .

Ev(s and g | he calls ) = 850*1/3 = 283.33 (283>240)

I've also simplified the problem because there will be times when you hit your set on the flop when villian calls , and there will be times when you suck out when you have the worst of it .

My intuition was slightly off but the decision is still a close one .

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