[Homer]

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I have seen this discussed and i would really like to know your thoughts on this. If we have two guys who place a bet with a bookie. Each lay -110 on oppossite sides. The loser loses all of his 110, but the winner only wins $100. Who pays the juice? I know the actual answer. But, I want to see what you guys think and maybe I am wrong (doubtful [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img] ).

craig

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I haven't read the other replies in this thread so I'm sorry if someone else already answered. The answer is that the loser pays the vig. Here's an example. There is a game at PK and you take the home team and put down $110 to win $100 and your friend does the same with the away team. Assume that is the only action on the game so the book now has $220. If you win, the book returns your $110, and then takes your friend's $110 pays you $100 of it, keeping $10 of vig from the loser. If you lose, the book will do the reverse and keep your $10 instead of your friend's. Hence, the loser always pays the vig.

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An argument like this could also be used to show that the winner pays the vig. Without vig, the winner would get paid $220 instead of $210. So, one could argue that the $10 the book is making is taken from the winner.