Re: Who pays the vig: The loser or the winner??
In my opinion, it's just a matter of semantics. You can really look at it either way.
When you risk $110 to win $100 you can either look at it as:
a.) a $110 bet which the winner pays a $10 vig charge.
-or
b.) a $100 bet which the loser pays an additional $10 vig charge.
Since this vig charge is paid up front and is lumped together with the actual wager, to me a.) makes more sense. If I put down $110 I prefer to view that as a $110 wager, not a $100 wager with a prepaid $10 vig charge in case I lose. It makes more sense to me that way, but in reality they are equivalent and equally valid. I'll make a separate post which shows how you can view the example in the article the other way.
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