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Reading between the lines, and I could be very wrong so take it with a grain of salt. Do I see this as a "floorman comes, sees the resulting winner of the hand, a friendly local" ruling? A ruling that would be different if the tabled cards were different? It just smells fishy to me.

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I believe all of this palyers chips should play. The dealer did not make him remove the excess chips from play. He put the chips into the pot. The other player (OP) accepted the action that was offered. Once action has been offered and accepted you cannot allow the player to remoce the chips as he was expecting to win all of the OP's chips if he had won. I see this the same way as two player's being heads up and agreeing to prodice more money to bet more than they have in their stacks; that would be a violation of table stakes, but if it happens (Puggy lost a big pot once I know of after tellign the dealer to stay out of it) the bet is "booked."