[Black Aces 518]

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How does this explain why it is irrelevant??

Anyway your question does not sound like a true or false question anyhow. Based on pure statistics, the answer is true. However there's always going to be more to the equation. Stack sizes...position, reads, raises, PF vs post flop, # of players...etc....
So my answer would be conditional, therefore I cannot say either way.

Given the AA problem in hand 1 I'm just considering the pure statistical nature of the problem. As I figure it there are 40 cards left after we subtract Adanthar's hand, the board cards, the burn cards, and the SB's hand.
Villain can have 1 J out of his 2 cards. 1/40 x 2 = 1/20.
So is it not a 5% chance he has the J??

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UTG goes allin. UTG +1 goes allin. UTG +2 goes allin. MP1 looks at his cards laughs and goes allin. The odds of being dealt AA are 1 in 220. Therefore the odds MP1 has AA are 1 in 220, right?