[nomadtla]

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I'm not a theoretician or math whiz, so maybe my next thought is naive/infantile: You're gaining an advantage on 1 of 8 opponents (12.5%). Assume you aren't playing in more than 25 or so % of the hands and he isn't either. Don't you have to factor in how many of the same hands you'd play in?


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You are not only gaining an advantage on him since you will have one more card to eliminate from your odds calculations and one more card to eliminate from all other opponents hands. But I'm no where near the math whiz to quantify this into BB/hr