Two Plus Two Newer Archives

Two Plus Two Newer Archives (http://archives1.twoplustwo.com/index.php)
-   Beginners Questions (http://archives1.twoplustwo.com/forumdisplay.php?f=34)
-   -   odds question (http://archives1.twoplustwo.com/showthread.php?t=493425)

orig!naL 09-04-2007 02:01 PM

odds question
 
I was reading something on 2+2 and I didn't fully understand where a couple numbers are coming from. I understand odds, but I just want to know if I'm missing something here:

Where is this coming from? 100/3.22 = 31.06. (So we need 31% equity to call. Where is the 100/3.22 coming from?)

[ QUOTE ]
You’re UTG with 65s. You open to $7. Two folds to Nit on the button. Nit makes a pot 3bet to $24. You make a pot 4bet to $75. Nit 5bets all in.

Pot Odds:
You have to call $125 to win a pot of $278. You’re getting 278:125, or 2.22:1.

100/3.22 = 31.06. (WHERE IS THE 100 / 3.22 COMING FROM)

Equity:

equity win tie pots won pots tied
Hand 0: 22.496% 22.29% 00.20% 18321336 168354.00 { 65s }
Hand 1: 77.504% 77.30% 00.20% 63532548 168354.00 { KK+ }

Are you priced in to call?

No. You need a little over 31% equity to call, and you only have about 22.5%. You can fold the hand without making a mistake.


[/ QUOTE ]

PantsOnFire 09-04-2007 02:53 PM

Re: odds question
 
Let's take a more simple example. You have 3:1 pot odds to call an all-in. To make the call correct, you need to win 1 out of every 4 times. (3:1 means you lose 3 and win 1 in every four attempts). So winning one out of 4 is 1/4*100% or 25% of the time.

Thus, your hand needs to at least 25% to win. A nut flush draw on the flop is 35% to win so a call would be correct.

This a case of converting pot odds or any odds to a percentage. If you are a 2:1 underdog that means you will only win 33% of the time (100/(2+1)).

RemyXO 09-04-2007 02:57 PM

Re: odds question
 
This is just a conversion from odds to probability in percentages.

To convert odds to probability, you have to add the chances. So, if the odds against you winning are 2.22 to 1, this means that out of 3.22 (2.22 + 1) chances, you have 1 chance of winning. So the probability is thus 1/3.22 = 0.3106 or 100%/3.22 = 31.06%

orig!naL 09-04-2007 02:57 PM

Re: odds question
 
Thanks very much!

Akatosh 09-04-2007 03:37 PM

Re: odds question
 
I find it difficult to adapt this math at the pokertable [img]/images/graemlins/frown.gif[/img]

RemyXO 09-04-2007 04:04 PM

Re: odds question
 
Well, at the poker table you should be operating with odds, because pot odds are much easier to correctly estimate than pot percentages. So, at the table you would actually do the reverse - convert the percentages into odds.

If you know your hand is X% to win the hand, you can quickly do Odds = (100/X - 1) to 1.

If you are 25% to win, odds are 100/25-1 = 3:1. Then check this number against what the pot is laying you.

Fermion5 09-04-2007 08:53 PM

Re: odds question
 
This confused me as well. I just said to hell with pot odds and learned to use pot percentages or probabilities, however you want to say it.

pot percentage= (amount you have to call) / (amount you have to call + amount in the pot). multiply by 100 to get a percentage.

jmitchell42 09-05-2007 05:16 AM

Re: odds question
 
remy, you said if you know the percentage at the table you would do the opposite. besides doing the first calculation first, how would you quickly know the percentage in order to reverse it? if i worded that strange let me know. sorry.


All times are GMT -4. The time now is 08:09 AM.

Powered by vBulletin® Version 3.8.11
Copyright ©2000 - 2026, vBulletin Solutions Inc.