statistics/standard deviation question from a non-math guy

[jogger08152]

Suppose a given game has a payout frequency of 1 in 8.
How "lucky" would a player have to be to win 80 trials out of 160? IE, how abnormal would this result be? Intuition tells me such an outcome would be freakishly unlikely, but I'd really like to get my arms around how to compute a precise answer.

Thanks,
Jogger

[ballin4life]

Binomial Distribution with n=160 p=.125

The chance of him winning exactly 80 trials is miniscule (my calculator gives a result on the order of 10^(-30)

The chance of him winning 80 or more trials is slightly greater but still miniscule (my caluclator gives an answer of 0).

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binomial_distribution
has the general formula (it's hard to type out but fairly simple to understand) and lots of other info.

[jogger08152]

Thanks bro, that's exactly what I was looking for.