allingator
06-17-2007, 02:05 AM
Taking a scenario from Harrington on Holdem Vol.1, you raise 88 from the CO and the BB calls. The flop comes:
A /images/graemlins/heart.gif K /images/graemlins/heart.gif J /images/graemlins/diamond.gif
Harrington suggests you shouldn't c-bet this flop because it is very likely to have hit your opponents hand in some way. Does anyone agree with this? To me it seems quite reasonable to c-bet here, considering you were the aggressor in the hand and can easily represent a high card hand that hit this flop very hard. The BB is calling PF with low-medium PP's and other hands that are going to have to fold to a bet on this board such a large portion of the time.
Maybe I am trying to relate 6max cash games and tournament play, but I feel I would be c-betting this in any HU situation like this.
A /images/graemlins/heart.gif K /images/graemlins/heart.gif J /images/graemlins/diamond.gif
Harrington suggests you shouldn't c-bet this flop because it is very likely to have hit your opponents hand in some way. Does anyone agree with this? To me it seems quite reasonable to c-bet here, considering you were the aggressor in the hand and can easily represent a high card hand that hit this flop very hard. The BB is calling PF with low-medium PP's and other hands that are going to have to fold to a bet on this board such a large portion of the time.
Maybe I am trying to relate 6max cash games and tournament play, but I feel I would be c-betting this in any HU situation like this.