n00b question about implied odds for flopping a set.

[JROK777]

Full Tilt Poker
No Limit Holdem Ring game
Blinds: $0.25/$0.50
6 players
Converter (http://www.neildewhurst.com/hand-converter)

Stack sizes:
UTG: $25.95
Hero: $68.85
CO: $94.50
Button: $4.65
SB: $55.60
BB: $50.00

Pre-flop: (6 players) Hero is UTG+1 with 7/images/graemlins/club.gif 7/images/graemlins/diamond.gif
UTG folds, <font color="#cc0000">Hero raises to $1.75</font>, 2 folds, SB calls, <font color="#cc0000">BB raises to $6.75</font>, Hero ???


I think I may be misusing the 5/10 rule. When we get reraised to 6.75, does villian need to have a stack of $67.50+ to call profitably? Or do we figure that we have already lost the 1.75 we have already put into the pot. Thus we have to call $5 and we can win villians $50 stack? If we hadn't already acted and villian had open raised to $5, we would have an easy call. As played we are losing the $1.75 no matter what we do after we get raised here. What is the correct thinking here?

[Bowlboy]

This is pretty close. YOu're basically getting your 10:1 on set odds here with the dead money already in the pot. I call here against a very tight raiser( ie, somebody who is like 15/3 because this is very likely to be AA or KK. If we flop a set we almost always get their stack here which we need to do to make it profitable. Against a good tag though I probably just let it go. I'd rather be getting like 15:1 then because you're not stacking a good postflop palyer nearly enough.